Saturday, March 26, 2016

26 March 2016

 Scripture: Romans 6:1-14

Observations:

Carrying off of the end of the last passage, that where sin increased, grace abounded more, Paul rebuts the question hanging in the air: "Shall we continue to sin so that grace may abound?"

He doesn't just say, "no." No, Paul very adamantly rejects that question, responding with one in kind: "How can we, who died to sin, still live in it?" Even more so, he draws the connection that, as we are baptised into Christ, we are baptised into Christ's death, so that, just as Christ was raised into life, that we would be as well. How lightly do we take that when we continue to sin?

Let me rephrase that: In accepting Christ, you take part in the death of God's Son, receiving freely-offered life.

In continuing to sin, we say that Christ's sacrifice amounts to nothing.

In a sense, it's like taking whatever amount of money you've earned from your inheritance and spending it all on prostitutes.

It is a blatant disregard of Christ's sacrifice, that we continue to live in sin!

As Paul continues, we see that it is not only a blatant disregard, but it is an impossibility. We have been crucified with Christ so that we may be no longer enslaved to sin. And if we have died with Christ, then we have also been resurrected into life with him, as Paul reasons, a life that is not subject to death any longer. Paul makes it clear that Christ died to sin and lives to God, illustrating that, if we are to be mirrors of Christ, then we, too, must die to sin and live to God.

For this reason, it is absurd that a Christian would return to a life of sin, that eh would so cheaply forsake the sacrifice of God. Indeed, I would argue that a desire to remain in sin is pathognomonic for a still-unsaved soul, which brings us to this last segment:
"Let not sin therefore reign in your mortal body, to make you obey its passions. Do not present your members to sin as instruments for unrighteousness, but present yourselves to God as those who have been brought from death to life, and your members to God as instruments for righteousness. For sin will have no dominion over you, since you are not under law but under grace." Romans 6:12-14
Paul is speaking directly. Do not allow sin to reign in your life. Paul's not saying that Christians don't ever sin. He's saying that Christians seek after God, not sin, giving themselves over to him, because sin no longer has jurisdiction over them.

Application:

WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER THE CONSTRAINTS OF SIN!

So why, then, do we live and act as though we are?

We act as though our sins run us, that they determine all of our actions, attitudes, and thoughts, when we should be living that way with regard to God.

Now, this is not saying that Christians will never sin, but that Christians will not have a mentality or predilection of sin anymore.

Tuesday, March 22, 2016

22 March 2016

Scripture: Romans 5:14-21

Observations:

We start off, finishing Paul's complicated thought from before, "Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come." (v 14) So we see that sin is still being considered and punished by death, even among those who did not sin as Adam did, men like Joseph or Job. (I'm not saying they were perfect and did not sin, but that they did not blatantly act in contradiction of an edict from God)

From there, Paul segues into talking about Christ. He makes the obvious comparison, that, just as death came to man through one man, so life came to man through Christ. However, that is where the similarity ends. Paul makes some important contrasts between Adam and Christ.

  • In Adam, many died through one sin. In Christ, the free gift of God's grace has abounded for many.
  • In Adam, the judgment of one sin brought condemnation. In Christ, the gift, given after many sins, brings justification, that is, absolution.
  • In Adam, death reigned. In Christ, those who receive the grace of God reign in life abundantly
This draws Paul to the conclusion that just as one sin led to the condemnation of all men, so did one act of righteousness, love, and grace lead to absolution and life for all men.

He then returns to the idea of the law with this thought: "Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more." What he's saying is that, because of the law, sin became defined and grew in magnitude from a corruption of man to direct disobedience of God's commands. Because of that, however, it also increased the magnitude of the grace given to man. 

Consider it this way: One of your coworkers offends you in a way that violates your internal, unvoiced boundaries. Still, you forgive him or her. Shortly thereafter, another of your coworkers offends you, crossing a boundary you've clearly expressed from day one. Again, you choose to forgive him or her. Which forgiveness required and gave more grace, the offence which was done in innocence and ignorance or the offence which was made known previously to be an offence?

Similarly, then, despite our sin, our offence against God, God's grace reigns through the righteousness of Christ, redeeming us from death and placing us instead under life.

God's forgiveness is given in grace. He would have been perfectly justified to condemn mankind to death in punishment for the sin that, thanks to Adam, reigns in us, but, instead, because of his love for us, took upon himself the punishment and consequence of our sin, an act enabled only by his perfect righteousness and, taking on the form and nature of man, he offered himself as the pure, unblemished sacrifice, fully God and fully man, sufficient where mere animal sacrifice was not to atone for the sin of all men for all time. 

How great, then, is the grace and forgiveness of God, that He would take upon himself the punishment due to us for the purpose of enabling us to come to him in righteousness, having communion with him once again?

17, 20 March 2016

Scripture: Romans 5:12-13

Observations:

All right. In this passage, Paul is making three distinct points.

1) Sin, and death, the punishment of sin, came into the world through Adam and has permeated mankind, even when the Law was not yet given. (vv 12-14)

Now, there are a couple points here worth noting. Paul explicitly notes that all of sin entered the world through Adam. It is because of his sin that mankind is inherently sinful. Next, he notes that, even though the law had not yet been given, sin was still considered sin before Moses' time.

I will say that verse 13 took me a while to understand. So, I broke it into parts and consulted some commentaries
  1. [F]or sin indeed was in the world before the law was given.
    This is pretty straightforward to me. Adam's disobedience constituted sin, ergo sin was present before the law was given to Moses, generations later
  2. but sin is not counted where there is no law.
    This was a good deal trickier. At first, it appears like Paul is saying that sin was present, but not punished, which we know is not so, after all, we have the flood, the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, the curse of Cain, and even the exile of Adam and Eve. Not to mention, death, the prescribed punishment, had been in the world the whole time as sin had become such that God began scaling back the lifespan of man from multiple hundreds to barely a single hundred. So, I looked at the Greek and both uses of "law" involve the same word, which doesn't help. Next, I looked at some commentaries, namely Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary, A Popular Commentary on the New Testament, John Wesley's Explanatory Notes, Jameson, Fausset, & Brown Commentary, John Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible, and The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges (e-Sword is a valuable reference tool). Of all those, I think the last two put it best (Though Popular had some good exposition into the varying theories surrounding this passage) :

    "but sin is not imputed when there is no law. This looks like an objection, that if there was no law before Moses's time, then there was no sin, nor could any action of man be known or accounted by them as sinful, or be imputed to them to condemnation; or rather it is a concession, allowing that where there is no law, sin is not imputed; but there was a law before that law of Moses, which law was transgressed, and the sin or transgression of it was imputed to men to condemnation and death, as appears from what follows." - Gill

    "for until the law] This and the following verses are not a parenthesis: see on Rom_5:12.—“Until” here practically = “before.” The period “from Adam to Moses” is in view, the Law of Moses being taken as the first elaborate statute-giving of God for man. “Laws” existed long before Moses; e.g. those of Marriage, of the sanctity of Life, and of the Sabbath. But the Mosaic Law covered the field of duty in a way unknown before; so as to suggest the question whether human beings, in the previous ages, in some instances, had not satisfied the claims of then-known duty, and so escaped death. But no: in those ages, as in the Mosaic, “death reigned;” therefore there was sin; therefore there was broken law; and that law, in numberless cases, (viz. infantine,) must have been broken only “in Adam;” for it was unknown to the persons in question.law … law] Both these words in the Gr. are without the article. In spite of some difficulty, we must interpret the first of the Mosaic Law, and the second of Law in some other sense; here probably in the sense of the declared Will of God in general, against which, in a particular case, Adam sinned, and we “in him.”is not imputed] So as to bring penalty. Therefore, had there been in no sense a (broken) law in the primeval age, there would have been no death. But death was universal." - Cambridge

    So, then, at the very least, we see that mankind is punished for its sin according to Adam's disobedience. We can also see that mankind is punished for its inherent sinful nature, a result of Adam's sin. The question I would ask is whether man is punished for committed sin and, if so, according to what standard?
    1. By all appearances, man is punished before the Mosaic law for committed sin. Take the examples given above: Adam and Eve's punishment and exile, the cursing of Cain, the flood, and the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah. Each of these followed the commission of some kind of transgression against God
      1. In the case of Adam and Eve's punishment and exile, they were punished for direct disobedience of God's command (Gen 2:15-17). They were then exiled to be kept from eating the fruit of the tree of life, thereby escaping the final punishment of sin, death (Gen 3:22-24)
      2. In the case of Cain, he was warned in advance that he was close to sinning, due to the attitude of his heart (Gen 4:5b-7). When he did sin, God declared that Abel's blood was crying out to him from the ground (Gen 4:10)
      3. In the case of the flood, God decided within himself that mankind had become increasingly wicked, later disclosing that decision and punishment to Noah (Gen 6:6-7, 11-13)
      4. Lastly, in the case of Sodom and Gomorrah, God decided within himself that they were living in sin and disclosed that to Abraham (Gen 18:16-21)